Please explain why are they deducting $4500 from $9000 ($45*200 shares) instead it should be $6000 ($30*200 shares). As we purchased for $30 per share and sold for 45 per share so the profit is $15 per share i.e $15*200= $3000 My ...
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Can somebody explain this question without using the formula
I was going through the incremental notes of AI, I stumbled upon the two performance appraisal methods Calmar and MAR methods. I would like to know the difference between the two.
What is the correct answer of this question? Solution says non current items (Option B) But, as per Sanjay sir dictated class notes. Answer is current items. Can anyone tell what is the correct answer?
Hello, The answer for this question is B. Can anyone give an explanation on the three options? I did not understand how the A and C options are correct and B is wrong
Arnab_DasIntermediate
Idhar US GAAP or IFRS mention nhi kiya hai…!! According to US GAAP: Undiscounted expected cashflow (22,000) > carrying value (20,000), So NO IMPAIRMENT TEST but according to IFRS: Carrying value > recoverable amount. Recoverable amount = MAX[(FMV – cost to sell), Value ...
Hi everyone, Can anyone explain why interest and taxes are ignored while calculating CFO through indirect method??
Hi, Can anyone tell me how C is the answer with proper explanation? I did not understand from the Institute solution
How to solve this? Can we use F=S*Factor/Factor formula to calculate the actual forward rate and then compare it with the given forward rate to find the arbitrage profit (obviously multiply it with BRL500000)?