I tried to think it in terms of l0ng put option but i dont think that can be interpreted as a long put option because of different exposure, can you please clear this doubt.
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This statement is stated in the core, I think it is incorrect because the one who is getting more claim on a leg should receive the upfront premium not pay it.
My doubt is that when calculating profit, we should also consider the upfront premium of 14% and coupon of 5% paid for 2 months while calculation the profit or loss, am i correct if no please answer why.
Because I am having a doubt in which should we call American, European and Bermudan call option in a callable bonds.
A is correct. Country A’s yield curve is upward sloping—a condition for the strategy—and more so than Country B’s. This is the ans which is country A but don’t you think that the statement “We assume that future spot rates reflect ...
Harsh_2685
Asked: In: Fixed Income (CFA L1)
Peppy_24
Asked: In: Fixed Income (CFA L3)