Why have we not calculated In(S/E) using S* (ex dividend stock price)?
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In this problem, a dividend yield (y) is given β 3.6% p.a.
There are two equivalent ways of handling dividends in the BSM model:
1st – Adjust the stock price directly (ex-dividend form) and then use the standard BlackβScholes formula without y.
2nd – Keep the actual current price S0β and introduce yΒ explicitly into the formula:
here second approach is used β
S0β=930 is cum-dividend, not adjusted.
The dividend effect is handled through the term e^βyTΒ in the final call formula, not by modifying S0
therefore You do not take lnβ‘(Sβ/X) Β because you already accounted for dividends through y.
In this problem, a dividend yield (y) is given β 3.6% p.a.
There are two equivalent ways of handling dividends in the BSM model:
1st – Adjust the stock price directly (ex-dividend form) and then use the standard BlackβScholes formula without y.
2nd – Keep the actual current price S0β and introduce yΒ explicitly into the formula:
here second approach is used β
S0β=930 is cum-dividend, not adjusted.
The dividend effect is handled through the term e^βyTΒ in the final call formula, not by modifying S0
therefore You do not take lnβ‘(Sβ/X) Β because you already accounted for dividends through y.